English- Macbeth

     I believe that Lady Macbeth uses a baby in her argument because she may have already had a husband. Perhaps Macbeth was not Lady Macbeth's first husband, and she had a baby with the original. I believe this because if she had had a baby with Macbeth (which they clearly no longer have), then it would not be a guilt trip for Macbeth for her to mention it. It almost seems to me like Macbeth somehow took the baby from his wife, as she seems to imply that it is his fault she no longer has one. It could either be this, or she is trying to say that she has been through just as much hardship as Macbeth has, perhaps more. This brings me back to the other husband theory. It could be that the child died before it could grow up (this happened often in those days), something Lady Macbeth would have had to deal with but Macbeth hadn't. This could be how Macbeth's wife is trying to guilt-trip him into killing Duncan. She's saying, "You think you're having a hard time with this decision? I lost a child!" This could be wrong, but overall I have a strong feeling that this baby (which is not even confirmed to have existed) is a tragedy that Lady Macbeth went through, but Macbeth did not, or was somehow the cause of.